| Thursday, November 6, 2008 - 08:44 pm |
Please correct me if I am wrong; Britain only renounced slavery after it lost the American colonies, the only part of its empire dependent on slavery. Britain's economy was not at all tied to slavery. Thus, Britain washed its hands clean of slavery only after it became convenient and the Americas were left to deal with its long lasting effects.
That issue has been mute in all the length of the thread, and rightfully so. We ignored reasons, because only the present and actions mattered.
But no. Slavery was abolished in 1839 here. 50 years of difference imply the States' independence sorted no influence in the market. That's because the americans were still buying slaves. Even if they weren't, supply would have been diverted to other markets: Brazil and Caribbeans.